MCCQE DUMPS REVIEWS, MCCQE ONLINE TRAINING

MCCQE Dumps Reviews, MCCQE Online Training

MCCQE Dumps Reviews, MCCQE Online Training

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Are you ready to take your career to the next level with the MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE)? Look no further than Exam4Docs for all of your MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam needs. Our comprehensive and cost-effective solution includes regularly updated Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Questions, available in a convenient PDF format that can be downloaded on any device, including PC, laptop, mac, tablet, and smartphone.

Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q100-Q105):

NEW QUESTION # 100
A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic accompanied by his 70-year-old husband. The patient reports that, over the last several months, his libido has been very low. Which one of the following would be the best next step?

  • A. Prescribe testosterone
  • B. Assess for depression
  • C. Refer for couple's counselling
  • D. Interview the couple together
  • E. Order serum testosterone levels

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Decreased libido in elderly patients can be multifactorial, but depression is a common and important cause that must be ruled out before hormone therapy or other steps. A proper mental health screen should precede further interventions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry / Geriatrics:
"In elderly men, reduced libido may be linked to depression, medical illness, or medications. Depression screening is essential." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Mood Disorders / Sexual Health):
"Candidates must consider depression as a common cause of decreased libido and assess accordingly before initiating hormone therapy." Testosterone testing (D) may follow. Prescribing (C) is premature. Couples counselling (B) may help if interpersonal issues are identified. Interviewing together (A) may inhibit disclosure.
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NEW QUESTION # 101
The parents of a 12-year-old boy present to your clinic to discuss their son's submersion injury. The patient was seen in hospital for 6 months after being pulled unresponsive from a lake at his friend's house; he had been submerged for an estimated 20 minutes. After extended resuscitation and a 2-month stay in the intensive care unit, he remains in a persistent vegetative state but needs no respiratory or cardiac support. When evaluating the discharge from hospital, which one of the following is most appropriate?

  • A. Recommend placement in a palliative care facility
  • B. Organize scheduled readmissions to hospital to provide the family with respite care
  • C. Advocate for home care support so that the parents can care for their son safely at home
  • D. Plan for a progressive return to school with a home caregiver
  • E. Continue intensive rehabilitation in the acute care hospital for the best chance of recovery

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient is in a persistent vegetative state and medically stable, meaning he does not need continued hospitalization. The goal is to provide appropriate long-term care in the least restrictive setting, typically at home with robust home care support services. This approach aligns with ethical care, family-centered goals, and medical appropriateness.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics / Neurodevelopment & Chronic Care:
"Home care with appropriate medical and caregiver support is often the best setting for children with severe neurological impairments who are medically stable." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-5: Chronic Neurological Disorders):
"Candidates must assess discharge planning and coordinate home care support for children with long-term care needs." Palliative facility (B) is not appropriate unless end-of-life is imminent. School (C) is not feasible in this state.
Hospital readmission for respite (D) is not standard. Rehabilitation (E) has little utility in persistent vegetative state.
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NEW QUESTION # 102
A 76-year-old man is brought by his family to your clinic with new-onset urinary incontinence. They state that the patient is experiencing a slowly progressing cognitive decline marked by memory disturbance, apathy, and attentional problems. Examination reveals that the patient has a stooped, forward-leaning posture and a wide-based gait. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Parkinson disease
  • B. Lewy body dementia
  • C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  • D. Alzheimer disease
  • E. Frontotemporal dementia

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics / Neurology:
"NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features." Alzheimer's (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson's (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.


NEW QUESTION # 103
A 3-week-old boy is brought by his parents to your clinic for a well-child visit. The newborn was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy. He is exclusively breastfed and is thriving. Physical examination findings are normal except for jaundice. Total bilirubin is 172 #mol/L (#100), and conjugated bilirubin is 4 #mol/L (#5). Results of a complete blood count and reticulocyte count are within the normal range. The results of a direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test were negative. Which one of the following, if any, is the most appropriate investigation?

  • A. Liver enzymes and serum albumin.
  • B. Urine culture.
  • C. No investigation required.
  • D. Test for galactosemia.
  • E. Hepatobiliary ultrasonography.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 104
A 22-year-old woman presents to the office for episodic mood changes that her boyfriend has noticed. During such episodes, she cries suddenly, is irritable and sad, and withdraws from socializing. Which one of the following would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

  • A. Personality testing.
  • B. Mood journal.
  • C. Trial of lorazepam.
  • D. Interviewing the boyfriend alone.
  • E. Urine drug screen.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A mood journal is a structured tool that allows the patient to record mood fluctuations, triggers, and timing. It is particularly helpful in identifying mood disorders such as premenstrual dysphoric disorder, bipolar disorder, or cyclothymia.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Mood Disorders:
"Mood diaries are useful in identifying temporal patterns, such as menstrual cycle-linked mood changes, and in distinguishing between affective disorders." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Diagnostic Evaluation:
"Candidates should use clinical tools such as symptom diaries to assist in establishing the pattern and nature of psychiatric symptoms." Personality testing (A) is not first-line. Urine drug screen (B) is only indicated with suspicion of substance use. Lorazepam (D) treats symptoms, not diagnosis. Interviewing the boyfriend (E) may help, but only as a supplement to direct observation and self-report.


NEW QUESTION # 105
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